WHAT IS A LAND PATENT??
Essentially,
a Land Patent is the first conveyance of title ownership to land which
the U.S. Government grants a citizen who applies for one.
One of the
earliest laws for granting Land Patents was passed by Congress on April
24, 1820. Among other things, Congress set up Government Land officers,
now known as the Bureau of Land Management. Land was usually sold in
parcels of 160 acres for $1.25 per acre. The law in 1820 prohibited
the borrowing or use of "credit" for the purchase of government land.
In the debates in Congress prior to passage of this act, Senator King
of New York said in March 1820 ... "it was calculated to plant in the
new country a population of independent unembarrassed freeholder ...
that it would place , in every man, the Power to Purchase a freehold.
the price of which could be cleared in 3 years... that it would cut
up speculation and monopoly ... that it would prevent the accumulation
of alarming debt which experience proved never would and never could
be paid" !!! (emphasis added) Later on, in 1862, a Homestead Act
stated in Section 4: "That no lands acquired under the provisions of
this act shall in any event become liable to the satisfaction of any
debt or debts contracted prior to the issuing of the patent therefor".
It
can be clearly seen that the intent of these early lawmakers was for
the people of this country to be FREEMEN AND FREEHOLDERS of their land,
and not ever be subject to have it taken from them by any
government, feudal authority or banker or any other party who might
have a claim against the person who owned the land. In plain English, a
Land Patent which gave you an allodial freehold, that was "judgement
proof and yes- even immune from tax liens. In [60] effect, the only
authority over you or your land was GOD himself. In England, a man,
who owned free from authority of the king, was known as a freeholder
and his land as a freehold or allodial freehold. Most land patents in
the U.S. were issued prior to 1900. However, even today, new land
patents continue to be issued, mostly for gas, oil and mineral rights
on public lands. For this reason, there are several land offices that
remain open in the United States.
WHAT IS THE VALUE OF A LAND PATENT?
On
the basis of all the case law I have seen, there is no doubt in my
mind that a land patent issued by the Bureau of Land Management which
gives you a title at law is far superior to any title acquired in
equity. such as a sheriff's deed. The land patent will, therefore,
prevent your ejectment and removal from the land or the property you
occupy on the land. The debts or claims of other parties will remain,
but the land will be removed from assets which they can attach. The
law is on the books today which says that any debts, which lie against
the land, that existed prior to the land patent being issued, are
removed from the land. The next question is; if the land patents were
issued 100 or more years ago to persons who are no longer alive,
and if I now reside on only a portion of the land that was originally
described in the original land patent, then how do I bring up the
land patent in my name'? And if I bring it up in my name, will it remove
the land as security which the Bank or Mortgage Company can sell and
seize in a foreclosure action? [61]
DECLARATION OF LAND PATENT
The
procedures which I will describe are not time tested, as they have
not worked their way through the U.S. Supreme Court. This does not mean
that these procedures will not ultimately be successful. Any basis
for a legal approach must be supported by a legal theory. We already
know and can substantiate that an original land patent will protect
your land from any equitable or collateral attack. However, we do not
know for certain that the existing procedures will vest in us the same
rights and immunities by filing a DECLARATION OF LAND PATENT, and
updating it in your name. However, since there is little to lose and
possibly much to gain, it would be wise to file a DECLARATION OF LAND
PATENT, in the future event that it is sustained.
The
theory is based on two premises. First, in the original land patent,
that was granted, lets say 100 years ago the land patent document
itself says that this patent is granted to the original party AS WELL
AS TO THEIR HEIRS AND ASSIGNS. While most of us are not heirs, ARE NOT
WE ALL ASSIGNS? Since land patents were originally issued, nearly all
conveyances of title were done by the use of deeds, like Quit Claim
Deeds and Warranty Deeds. However, the money lenders found a way
around land patents by creating, new paper instruments like deeds of
trust and mortgages, all of which convey equitable interests. However,
the land patent its remains the highest title at law, and few persons
have updated a land patent in their name. Where a land patent exists,
no lien or mortgage could be ever placed on the land. Since the intent
of the lawmakers is the law, historic evidence shows that our
founding fathers wanted us to own the land [62] in its entirety, and
subject to the claims of no other man or government or other
institution. Because the laws were passed by Congress setting up
Land Offices to grant land patents, the best jurisdiction in which to
raise these issues are the Federal Courts.
In
the Declaration of Land Patent, we then declare that we are the
ASSIGNEE'S of the original land patent, even though we may be 2nd,..3rd,
4th, etc., after the party to whom the original patent was issued.
TO LET YOU KNOW HOW SERIOUS THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT IS TAKING THESE
DECLARATIONS OF LAND PATENTS, Don Walker has recently stated: "That in
Illinois, he personally knows of a farmer who applied for a $500,000
loan and was told by the Federal Land Bank that it would be granted if
he removed his Declaration of Land Patent. Also, the FLB is now itself
applying for and filing Declarations of Land Patents on farms it is
"foreclosing on". We have also learned that oil, gas and coal companies
are filing these declarations on land already titled in their name
through deeds. Also, Dennis Schlueter of Fort Collins, Colorado has
stated: he knows of banks who are foreclosing on mortgages, that
are then filing these DECLARATIONS OF LAND PATENTS on the property that
they just foreclosed on. Now if these land patents were worthless pieces
of paper, then why is everybody jumping on the bandwagon?
After
the review of several different land patents, the one enclosed in this
paper is, considered the one that best sums up what is to be said. [63]
The one major pitfall, that
must be avoided, is that when filing the declaration of land patents,
do not place the same legal description in the declarations that was in
the original land patent issued by the Bureau of Land Management.
What this does is cloud the title to the property of other persons who
are living in properties that are part of the legal description of the
original land patent. As a result, several lawsuits were filed to
quiet title. To prevent this from happening, you must write in your
Declaration of Land Patent only the legal description of the property to
which you are an assignee. In other words, the legal description from
your deed or abstract is what you must use. For this reason, the
enclosed Declaration of Land Patent has in it, adequate language for
this purpose. A Declaration of Homestead should be attached to your
Declaration of Land Patent, but the legal description in your
Declaration of Homestead must be 160 acres or less to comply with
Federal Law on filing Homesteads. Along with the declaration of Land
Patent and the Declaration of Homestead is a certified copy of the
original land patent which you can obtain from your nearest land
office. These papers are all stapled together and filed in either your
County Recorder's office or with the Register of Deeds.
DO NOT SEND CHECKS. SEND MONEY ORDERS ONLY / MAKE PAYABLE TO: Bureau of Land Management
After
you receive your copy of the original Land Patent or Land Grant,
then staple it to a Declaration of Land Patent and file it in your
County Recorder's office or Register of Deeds. You now have your
allodial title. If you haven't filed a Declaration of Homestead, then
you should do so and attach it to your Land Patent. You may file a
Declaration of Homestead on up to 160 [64] acres, but not more. A
Declaration of Homestead can only be filed on property that you
actually live on. A Land Patent can only be filed on property that has
been assigned to you. You don't file one on your neighbor's property or
they can sue you for slandering his title.
A
Declaration of Homestead should be filed whether or not you file a
Land Patent. It may be filed with, before, or after your lawsuit is
filed. Both Land Patents and Declarations of Homestead must be
Notarized. A sample of both are enclosed. Make photocopies of both
before using them or you may retype your own.
After
your Land Patent is filed, you must send a photocopy by Certified Mail
Return Receipt Requested to your bank or mortgage company, FLB, FMRA,
PCA, etc and to any and all parties that may have an equitable interest
in your property so they have been placed on NOTICE that you are
updating the Land Patent in your name and they will have 60 days to
challenge your claim to your allodial title in a court of law or
forever keep their silence. Be sure to keep your green tickets when
they come back.
GIVING NOTICE IS A BASIC PRINCIPLE OF LAW. WHEN THE GOVERNMENT
LAND OFFICES ORIGINALLY ISSUED THE LAND PATENTS, THEY PUBLISHED
THE LAND PATENT WITH LEGAL DESCRIPTION FOR 60 DAYS: WHEN NOT
CHALLENGED BY ANYONE, THE LAND PATENT WAS THEN GRANTED. AN
ALTERNATIVE WAY TO GIVE THE OTHER PARTY NOTICE IS TO PUBLISH A
"NOTICE OF DECLARATION OF LAND PATENT" in a legal publication in your county
of residence.
Include
the legal description on your property in the ad with this warning:
"If any party having a claim, lien or debt or other equitable interest
fails to file a suit in a court of law within 60 days [65] from the date
of filing or on (insert date), then they shall waive all future claims
against this land and it will become the property and allodial
freehold of the Assignee to said Patent. (your name - Assignee)
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Q. Why must we give the other side `NOTICE'?
A.
Giving NOTICE is a basic principle of common law. If someone was going
to file a claim against property that you thought was yours, would you
not want to be given NOTICE? if they fail to file a suit in court
within the 60 days, the case is substantially weakened if they file it
later. Also, filing the Land Patent is an excellent diversionary tactic,
since the focus of the court battle shifts to who has the best title.
Remember, you are an Assignee to that original patent, and your claim is
valid. The U.S. Government signed a contract granting that Land Patent
to the original party, their heirs or assigns. YOU ARE AN ASSIGNS to
all allodial title or freehold. The original contract does not specify
any expiration date. it is still in force. If the original land patent
is immune from equitable or collateral attack, then so is yours.
Q. Where can I find more case law on Land Patents?
A.
At your local library at your courthouse or university. Look up the
Supreme Court Digests [66] on Land Patents, also a set of books
called 43 USCS 17. Also books on State Law Digests. Look underthe
section on Land Patents. There is also material in Bouvier's Law
Dictionary. Also look under the term "Bureau of Land Management". You
will also find many court cases and related documents on the DCS
computer system, especially in the directories:
Law
Pre1868 - Supreme Court Cases
Post 1868 - Supreme Court Cases
9th US Circuit Court of Appeals
Q. Why send the Bureau of Land Management $20.00?
A. This is the approximate cost for most copies of the original patents.
This
includes $4.25 for the patent plus a search fee. A copy of the County
Plat map makes it easier for them to locate the patent or grant. In
your letter, BE SURE TO ASK FOR A CERTIFIED COPY. You should receive it
in 4 to 6 weeks.
WHO DOES YOUR LAND BELONG TO?
While
it is generally believed in America today that the purpose of the
American revolution was to resist taxation without representation. The
primary reason for the revolution was to deliver America's Land Titles
out of the hands of Great Britain and return them to the people. It was
assumed by many, before the Revolution, that England rightfully
"owned" America. It was because of this assumption that she gave
grants of land to supportive Colonists, then taxes the Colonists as
subjects. But, the patriots, of that day, insisted that the King of
England did not own the land ... so it was not his to grant. After the
Revolution, the land became the property of each [67] State's people,
with the authority in the people to parcel out the land to claimants in
a fair and equitable manner. If some land remained unoccupied,
Jefferson said: that anyone occupying it had possession, the right of
ownership, land title, was then to be held by way of ALLODIAL TITLE.
That simply meant that there was "No Superior" to the land owner. He was
the Superior, the Sovereign on his land.
To
encourage railroad growth and provide transportation for over three
million new settlers that had immigrated from the East into a
wilderness devoid of roads, the government gave the first railroad
land grant ... 2,595,000 acres of federal land, six alternate numbered
sections (640 acres in a section) of unpreempted, land for every
mile of track built, to be issued to fund the building of the Illinois
Central, with a branch to Chicago. The contract said that it should
be completed in six years and that seven percent of the company's
gross should be paid to the state in perpetuity. Also, Uncle Sam
was permitted set his own charge for carrying troops, freight and
mail, and eventually settled on fifty percent for the first two and
eighty percent for the mail. The Illinois Central, then the longest
line in the world, was completed three days before the deadline set in
1856.
One of the earliest laws
for granting patents was passed by an Act of Congress an April 24,
1820. The law in 1820 prohibited the borrowing or use of credit for the
purchase of government land. In the debates in Congress prior to the
passage of this Act, Senator King of New York said "... it (the Act) is
calculated to plant, in the new country, a population of
independent, unembarrassed freeholders ... it will put the power in
every man to purchase a [68] freehold, the price of which can be
cleared in three years ... it will cut up speculation and monopoly
... it will prevent the accumulation of an alarming debt, which
experience proves never could or would be paid." In 1862, the Homestead
Act. in Section 4, provided that "no lands acquired under the
provisions of this Act shall in any event become liable to the
satisfaction of any debts contracted prior to the issuing of the land
patent."
When taxation of real
property began (and the people did not object) they voluntarily
accepted the premiss that government was the Superiors and the land
owner a mere serf in a feudal relationship to his master. And the
whole process helped to contribute to an ever increasing control by
Lawless Government. This Lawless Government has been preparing America
for the time when the land will be confiscated to pay off the
indebtedness to the Federal Reserve that has America on the verge of
financial collapse.
According to
conservative estimates, possibly half a million U.S. farmers will be
driven from the land in the next several years. Jim Hightower put the
goal of the previous administration at 10,000 super farms. No one
knows what this administration might do. Mr. Hightower is the Texas
Commissioner of Agriculture. A total of "10,000" farms for the nation
has been the goal of public policy ever since the Committee for
Economic Development wrote its Adaptive Program for Agriculture, but
true to "People's Republic" type thinking, the matter has never been
taken up with the American Public. [69]
Democrats
and Republicans alike have allowed this policy to march forward,
annihilating not only the family farm, but the freedoms of all
Americans.
So the mortgage
foreclosures, in the words of the great thinkers, will deliver the
landed resources of the United States into a few strong hands. Thomas
Jefferson would have called it "landed aristocracy."
The
founding fathers knew that free men could survive only as long as
they owned property, because it was this ownership that accounted for
broad spectrum distribution of income and preservation of the jury
system. They also knew that manipulation of the money supply, via debt,
would ultimately take from the people their substances, by
concentrating the property into the hands of a few, which is now the
curse of the majority of the world.
Thomas
Jefferson wrote: "If the American people ever allow the banks to
control issuance of their currency, first by inflation and then by
deflation, the banks and corporations that grow up around them will
deprive the people of all property until their children will wake up
homeless on the continent their fathers occupied." [70]
"I OWN MY LAND?"
Taken
from a letter/notice from the United States Department of the
Interior, it stated: "the United States has paramount title in the
land."
The legal definition of Paramount is as follows:
Paramount
Title: "In the law of real property -- one which is superior to the
title with which it is compared, it is used to denote a title which is
better or stronger dm another ..... (Black's Law, 4 Ed. pg 1267)
Under
the National Constitution, Article IV & 111, Clause 2, Congress
was given power (by the people) to dispose of its territories and the
land acquired for the people of the United States by purchase and by
TREATY. The Administration (government) holds this land as TRUSTEE for
the people!
After the Declaration
of Independence and the "REVOLUTION', the land was to be held by
everyone (landowners) in/by Allodial Tils, which simply means there is
no superior or "overlord" to or over the landowner. [71]
Before
we get into what Allodial Titles, and Land Patents are, let's go to
the first U.S. Supreme Court case on land titles for a clearer and
basic understanding as to what our forefathers established through
their experience and sacrifice for their progeny.
The
case is WALLACE v Harmstad, S Ct 492 (1863), and the opinion of@the
Court was delivered, May 6th 1863, by Justice Woodward, and in
part, he stated:
"I
see no way of solving this question, except hy determining whether
our Pennsylvania titles are allodial or feudal. It seems strange that so
fundamental a question as this should be in doubt at this day, but it
has never had, so far as I know, a direct judicial decision. In a
valuable note by Judge Sharswood to the opening passage of
Blackstone's Chapter on Modern English Tenures. (2 Sharswood's Black.
77), it is said, "that though there are some opinions that feudal
tenures fell with the Revolution, yet all agree that they existed
before, and the better opinion appears to be that they still exist.
"In support of this statement, the feudal principals that have entered
into our conveyancing are alluded to, and several cases are cited in
which the consequences and qualities of feudal tenures have been
recognized in our estates, although generally, in these very cases, it
has been assumed that our property is allodial. I venture to suggest
that much of the confusion of ideas that prevails on this subject has
come from our retaining, since the American Revolution, the feudal
nomenclature of estates and tenures, as fee, freehold, heirs,
reoffment, and the like.
Our
question, then, narrows itself down to this: is fealty an part of
our land tenures? [72] What Pennsylvanian ever obtained his lands by
"Openly and-humbly kneeling before his lord, being un-grit, uncovered,
and holding up his hands together between those of the lord, who
sat before him, and there professing that he did become his man from
that day forth, for life and limb, and earthly honor, and then
receiving a kissfrom his lord? - This was the oath of fealty which was,
according to Sir Marlin Wright, the essential feudal bond so necessary
to the very notion of a feud. But then came the Revolution, which
threw off the dominion of the mother country, and established the
independent sovereignty of the state (the people), and on the 27th day
of November 1779 (I Smith's Laws 480), an act was passed for vesting
the estates of the late proprietaries of Pennsylvanian in the
Commonwealth. Another act on the 9th of April 1781, (2 Smith 532),
provide for opening the land office and granting lands to purchasers;
and, says the 11th section, "all and every the land or lands-granted in
pursuance of, this act shall be free and clear of all reservations and
restrictions as to mines, royalties, quit-rents, or otherwise, so that
the owners thereof respectively shall be entitled to hold the same in
absolute and unconditional property, to all intents and purposes
whatsoever, and to all and all manner of profits, privileges, and
advantages belonging to or occurring from the same, and that clear and
exonerated from any charge or encumbrance whatever, excepting the debts
of said owner,... [73] The province was a fief held immediately from
the Crown, and the Revolution would have operated very inefficiently
towards complete emancipation, if the feudal relation had been suffered
to remain. It was therefore necessary to extinguish all foreign
interest in the soil, as well as foreign jurisdiction in the manner of
government. We are then to regard the Revolution and these Acts of
Assembly as emancipating every acre of the soil of Pennsylvania from
the grand characteristic of the feudal system. Even as to the lands
held by the proprietaries themselves, they held them as other citizens
held, under the Commonwealth, and that by a title purely allodial. All
our lands are held mediately or immediately of the state, by the titles
purged of all the rubbish of the dark ages, excepting only the feudal
names of things not any longer feudal. Under the Acts of assembty I have
alluded to, the state became the proprietor of all lands, but instead
of giving them like a feudal lord to an enslaved tenantry, she has
sold them for the best price she could get, and conferred on the
purchaser the same absolute estate she held herself,... and these have
been reserved, as everything else has been granted, by CONTRACT."
To get a better understanding of this issue, we must take a look at certain definition, from Black's Law, as follows:
"ALLODIAL.
Free; not holden of any lord or superior, owned without obligation of
vassalage of fealty; the ol2l2osite of feudal, " [74]
"ALLODIUM.
Land held absolutely in one's own right, and not of any lord of
superior; Land not subject to feudal duties or burdens. (Emphasis added
Take note that AIIodiaI is the opposite of Feudal.
"FEUDAL.
Pertaining to feuds, fees; relating to or growing out of the feudal
system or feudal law; having the quality of a feud, as distinguished
from 'allodial' (Emphasis added)
"FEUD.
An estate in the land held of a superior on condition of rendering him
services. An inheritable right to the use and occupation of lands,
held on condition of rendering services to the lord or proprietor, who
himself retains the property in the lands. In this sense the word is
the same
as "feod", "feodum", "feudom", "fief", or "FEE".
To
simplify, one can have two different and opposite titles of land, one
of 'Feudal, nature - owing a fee or duty to another who actually retains
or own the land or the other being 'Allodial', Where the land is held
absolutely in one's own right, not subject to another, a fee or a duty!
So
the..term OWNERSHIP" may take on a totally different meaning,
dependent upon the type of title one has in the land. 'OWNERSHIP-' is a
key principle as it pertains to the rights to acquire and use property
as well as rights in the land as well. Ownership is defined as
follows: [75]
"OWNERSHIP:
The complete dominion, title, or proprietary right in a thing or
claim. The entirety of the powers of use and disposal by law. The
exclusive right of possession, enjoyment, and disposal. Ownership of
property is absolute or qualified. The ownership of property is
absolute when a single person has absolute dominion over the
property. The ownership is qualified when ... use, of the property is
restricted." (Emphasis added)
The
Act of Congress of April 24, 1820 was one of the earliest statutes
passed for granted land Patents, along with the Homestead Act, Sec. 4
in 1862 and as stated earlier, the disposal of its territories and
land acquired for the people is by purchase and by TREATY (Contract of
and by the
People) to wit:
1) Northwest Ordinance (1787)
2) Treaty of Peace, 8 STAT.80 (1783)
3) Treaty of Ghent, 8 STAT.218 (1818)
4) Oregon Treaty, 9 STAT.869 (June 15, 1846)
5) Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo, 9 STAT.922 (1848)
6) Treaty of Cession, 8 STAT.200 (1863)
The
Treaty (Contract) Law cannot be interfered with, as the Supreme
Court has held that 'Treaties' are the 'supreme law of the land'. See
also Article 6, Sec.2 of the U.S. Constitution. The Treaty is declared
the will of the People of the United States and shall be superior to
the Constitution and the laws of if any individual State. [76]
It
was through the 'experiences' of our Founding Fathers, coming from a
Feudal system, that they desired that in the new country, the United
States, that all men would own their land, in its entirety,
absolutely, with full dominion, and subject to the claims of no man or
government! This was done through grant or purchase.
Black's Law, 4th Ed. pg. 829, defines Grant as a conveyance(?), same reference, pg. 402 under general, to wit:
Absolute
or Conditional Conveyance. An Absolute conveyance is one by which
the right or property in a Thing is transferred, by which it might be
defeated or changed; as an ordinary deed of lands, in contradistinction
to a mortgage which is a conditional conveyance.
Now
under the' term 'Grant' it shows 'Private Land Grant' as: A grant by a
public authority vesting title to public land in a private (natural)
person.
Public Grant: A grant
from the public; a grant of a power, license, privilege, or property,
from the state or government to one or more individuals, contained in
or shown by a record, conveyance, Patent, charter, etc.
Before
we go on to Patents, and with a little understanding of 'Grants', we
will take a little time to touch up on the 'Purchase' of land as it
affects title. Two points are raised or established, the first, from a
court case, called STANEK v WHITE, 215 NWR 781 (1927), states: [77]
"There
is a distinction between a debt discharged and one paid. When
discharged the debt still exists, though divested of its character as a
legal obligation during the operation of the discharge."
How
does this affect your land purchase'? Very simple. When Congress, in
1933, suspended the gold standard (Art. 1, Sec. I 0) which denied you
the right to PAY YOUR DEBTS AT LAW (which extinguishes the debt), to
a system where you can only discharge your debts, but the debt still
exists. This may be where your duty or fee comes from in the form of
your property tax. But there may also be a distinction in the form or
type of payment that you made in and for the land. The courts
have ruled that the Federal Reserve Bank/System is not an agency of
the U.S. Government, but rather a Private Corporation!
Therefore,
when you participate in the Federal Banking System, you are
participating in a private money system, which is a privilege, and
therefore a duty and fee is extracted, in the form of a tax, but since
Federal Reserve Notes are not Lawful Money (no substance backing it!)
you cannot pay your debts at law, they are only pieces of paper of
which a debt attaches!
To prove this, we go to the second point, the definition of Title, as found in Bouvier"s Dictionary of Law:
"The means whereby the owner ... hath just possession of his property.
3.
Title to personal property may accrue in three different ways;
by original acquisition, by transfer by act of law, by [78] transfer by
act of the parties. 5. THE LAWFUL COIN OF THE UNITED STATES WILL PASS
THE PROPERTY ALONG WITH THE POSSESSION.' (Emphasis added)
The
Lawful coin of the United States was Gold and Silver which is
'substance'. In olden days, one got gold from the land and one could
buy land with gold. But back then, the conveyance of land through
purchase was honored (in the law) and full and absolute possession
and ownership was transferred!
So
what we have covered so far, you can see that perhaps you don't own
your land. Merely compare your so-called title or deed to the points of
law as brought forth herein. See also the attached 'Exhibits' for
your comparison. In mid-stream, we ask you the question, "Is property
tax evidence of ownership?" We'll let you also answer that question.
Now
on to Land Patents- Because all Federal Land Patents flow from
Treaties that fall under the "Supremacy Clause," no State, private
banking corporation or other federal agency can question the superionty
of title to land owners who have perfected their land by Federal
Land Patent. Public lands, as found in 42 American Jurisprudence, Sec.
781 thru 873, shows that a Patent of land is to be the title to land
and anything else is FRAUD. Transfer of a Patent is by release of
Patent Interest Right and not by some form of 'USURY INSTRUMENT' of
Trust or Warranty. (See also 40 AM JUR, 577 thru 688) [79]
A
Land Patent issued by the United States is legal and conclusive
evidence of title to the land conveyed. (Opinion of U.S. Attorney
General - Sept. 1869). A Land Patent is the highest evidence of
title. Since Land Patents cannot be collaterally attacked as to
their "Validity" or "Authenticity" as the highest evidence of title;
Federal Land Patents were given free and clear 'ALLODIAL Title' with
no encumbrances, then and now. Can you say the same about your land
title'?
The Patent alone passes
land from the United States to the grantee and nothing passes a
perfect title to land but a (WILCOX v JACKSON, 43 Peter (U.S.) 498,
10 L Ed. 264) ".... with no fee or duty (TAX)!!!
Since
a Land Patent is not a conveyance of title by someone assigning
their equity interest over to you, but a Land Patent is a TITLE AT
LAW, which establishes an ALLODIAL FREEHOLD that is judgement proof and
even immune from tax liens! Again, can you say the same thing
about your land title'? [80]
"THE PROPERTY TAX --- SCHOOL FUNDING ISSUE"
"OWNERSHIP VS FRAUD IS IT A MASTER-SLAVE RELATIONSHIP
Well
there's a lot of emotions flowing out and about, around this here
Property Tax --- School Funding Issue! Within the State of Oregon, there
was more than a lot of talk about a sales tax, which would
accordingly lower property taxes. Following that, the people voted in
the Lottery. With the promise that funds would or could go to lower
property taxes. Time will tell on that one, just don't hold your
breath! Most Oregonians don't want that sales tax! (Nor does any
other person in this country, unless they are a politician.) And if
school funding issues are brought into any discussion, in relation to
or based on property taxes, watch out, 'fur can fly'! I
Many
people, with good intentions, support the schools, to a point,
irrespective of the poor quality (the results) and the underlying
goals of such controlled education. It seems that every year, along
with teacher strikes, the property tax issue arises, with all the pros
and cons. Seems to just get worse than better! And haven't you
noticed, that all the politicians ever do, at any level, is to raise
taxes ... then again, maybe you haven't noticed!
But
then it's a 'Catch 22 Situation'. To support the schools, financially,
property taxes must go up! Vote property taxes down, and the schools
must suffer! It's really a no win situation.
Maybe
the solution lies within QUESTIONS, or to put it another way, YOU may
have to go back to the beginning and find or discover the ANSWERS! [81]
In
order to get the right answer(s), one must ask the right questions,
like: Are property taxes necessary'? Are property taxes lawful?
But the most important question is: "is property tax indicia (evidence) of true ownership"?
Well
now, let's, do some investigating! What does 'ownership' really
mean? "The colete dominion, title, or proprietary right in a thing
or claim. The entirety of the powers of use and disposal by law. The
exclusive right of Possession, enjoyment, and disposal. Ownership of
property is absolute or Qualified. Ownership of property is Absolute
when a single person has absolute dominion over it. The ownership is
qualified when ... use is restricted".! (Black's Law Dictionwy, 5th
Ed., pg.979) (Emphasis Added)
So
what does this tells us? Ownership in land is: "THE COMPLETE DOMINION,
TITLE, EXCLUSIVE RIGHT OF POSSESSION, ENJOYMENT, RIGHT TO CONTROL WITH
ABSOLUTE DOMINION OVER IT!!
That
statement seems fo be meaningless in view of the compelling of
PERMITS, and of course PROPERTY TAXES! Kind of like there's somebody
watching over you, controlling or dictating what you can or cannot do
on your land, and then demanding "TAXES" as well. [82]
It
would then appear that most people who have bought (paid of off)
their land (with or without a home on it) do not have absolute control,
dominion, use, or even full enjoyment of it, when the individual and
land is RESTRICTED by local permits and property taxes!
Then
it also follows that, if there are such restrictions on your land,
that you do not have 'absolute title'. Maybe then ... your not
really an owner, in the true sense of the word. I guess you would be
called a quasiowner. They kind of define that as 'something like" an
owner! Maybe there is a 'SUPERIOR' above you, controlling the use of
the land and compelling a duty of fee for the 'interest' or 'use'
of the land ... called property taxes! In the old days, way back in
time, it was called "FEUDALISM", which is defined in part as:
"The
system was based upon a servile relationship between a "vassal" and
"lord". The vassal paid homage and service to the lord and the lord
provided land and protection." (Black's Law Dictionary, 5th Ed., pg.
559).
Well now, not too bad, but
let's take a look at "FEUDUM", defined as: "A feud, fief, or fee
(tax). A right of using and enjoying forever the lands of another, which
the lord (superior) grants on condition that the tenant shall render
@ (duty or tax) military duty, and other services. It is not
properly the land, but a n@ in the land." (Black's Law Dictionary,
5th Ed.,'pg. 560) (Emphasis added) [83] So what you may be
involved in, as a so called 'property owner', is a form of feudalism,
which is basically in modem terms:
"A
system based upon a servant relationship between the servant and a
superior (State, Banking Co., Corporation, or other). The servant for
the payment of a property tax (fee) has a right to use the land on
conditions! "
For today,, those
conditions are the property tax, land use laws and permits. It should
be noted however that if the servant falls to pay the property
taxes or violates any of the conditions, the servant will be
removed off the land and another servant will be allowed to use the land
... on the same conditions! One must remember, however, the state will
use any means to remove a servant/slave who fails to pay the
taxes, even to the point of using a SWAT TEAM!
The
right to use the land does not grant absolute title. The servant is
without and is denied the true title, and is involved in what is
called simply a 'feudal system'. Please bear with me, my leading is not
in vain!
Let us now look at and
define the word "FEUDAL", it is: "Pertaining to feuds or fees;
relating to or growing out of the feudal system or feudal law;
having the quality of a feud, as distini!uished from 'Allodial".
(Black's Law Dictionary, 5th Ed., pg.559) (Emphasis added) [84]
Well
now, that's dam right interesting. This thing called "ALLODIAL",
which is distinguished (opposite) from the "Feudal System" of the
use of land without true ownership - for a fee! Well, we're going to
take a good look at this 'Allodial' thing.
But
now those people who are in the know, or supposed to be, from REAL
ESTATE AGENTS, STATE OFFICIALS, to POLITICIANS, obviously are not
directed to this information, or most likely this information has been
suppressed or even denied, not only from them ... but from you too, the
so-called property owner!!! Could it be that those we elect(?) or the
powers that are in the 'mushroom business', keeping everyone in the
dark and feeding them 'bull'?
Well
hang on, we're getting warm. I now direct you to the definition of
Allodial, it is: "Free; not holden of any lord or superior; owned
without ablization of vassalage of fealty; the opposite of feudal."
(Black's Law Dictionary, 5th Ed., pg.70)(Emphasis added)
Can
you believe, a title of land where you are not beholden' to
anybody', owned without any 'obligation', of any duty or fee... a
property tax'? Amazing but true!
Strictly
speaking, in regards to land, we go to yet another definition, and
that is of land being held in ALLODIUM, as- [85] "Land held absolutely
in one's own right, and not of any lord or superior; land not
subject to feudal duties or burdens. An estate held by absolute
ownership, with out recognizing any superior to whom any duty is due
on account there of". (Black's Law Dictionary, 5th Ed., pg. 70)
Therefore,
if any title on land would be wanted or sought after, as a treasure,
it would certainly be an 'Allodial Title' would it not'?
Imagine
a 'Title', on your land, where you are not subject to duties, fees,
or taxes! Land held in absolute ownership with no superior above you!
That means (what should have happened) when you paid off the debt on
your land, the State, the Bank, or the party holding the contract until
full payment, should of then transferred the proper true title, an
Allodial Title. You would then own your land free and clear, fee simple.
absolute! It could then be said, that you held your land in
"PARAMOUNT", as in holding paramount title. Paramount being defined as:
"In the law of real property, one which is superior to the title with which it is compared, in the
sense that the former is the source of the later. It is, however, frequently used to denote a title
which is simply better or stronger than another, or will prevail over it." (Black's Law Dictionary,
5th Ed., pg. 1001) [86]
So
now the question is, does the title you hold, or will receive, give
you full absolute ownership, free and clear, fee simple, not subject to
any duty or tax .... do you hold your land in Allodium with a
paramount title'???
In the old
days, it is my understanding, that land held under these titles could
not be licenced, seized, or taxed! Of course this applied to the
land as well, because of the "STATUS" of not only the land, but the
"owners" as well. The land was owned, and nobody else had any control,
what so ever! The land represented the wealth of the family, it was
the family! Irrespective of hardships, family members could always go
back to the land, the family farm, to survive and rebuild any monetary
loss and self esteem!
But no so
today! With the many restrictions placed upon the land, and of course,
with the State owning the land (State holds true titles) the people
cannot use the land for their needs, purposes, or desires.
Many
people have been forced onto the welfare system as a result of this
modern day 'Feudal System'. The land is simply ... not yours!
But
now the question is this; "Why do you, the so called property owner, do
not have and hold an "Allodial/Paramount Title" to the land (And
Home) that you THINK you own? [87]
Why
are you, the individual(s), the true substance and strength of this
country, denied the proper lawful title to your land? Why are you denied
the full enjoyment, from the use and ownership of your land'? Is the
quest for control and power, by those in authority over you, worth the
violation of your "Life", "Liberty", and "Pursuit of Happiness"? Why
are you led to believe that you own the land? Why are you called a
landowner, when you are compelled to duties, fees, and taxes'? When
you bought your property, did you understand and agree to having a
'superior' above you, controlling the use of your land? Why has the
State denied you true title to your property?
Is
it because the need and greed for power and control over the masses
that necessitates the fraud and scams to keep the State coffers full and
the sheep in line, thinking and believing that they own their
land, thereby making it a little easier to fleece! State Dictatorial
control, under the guise of permits, property taxes, and school
funding, in relation to the ownership of land" necessitates..."the end
justifies the means!"
This
"Citizen", having an interest in the basic land/title issue, and fully
understanding the principles involved, the truth that "we are merely
serfs upon the land," that no one really owns their land, and having no
need to participate in "their" deceitful fraud ... has turned his
energy toward other interests.
One
such interest was 'prospecting' and its related area of information.
That of course led to collecting and reading books and information
about mining claims and U.S. regulations on [88] mining claims from the
Bureau of Land Management (BLM). One of the letter documents that I
had received was quite a surprise, since I had skimmed over it some
time back.
The letter was from
the "United States Department of the Interior", "Bureau of Land
Management", titled "Notice to Mining Claimant", 2nd. paragraph, and in
part said:
"Since a mining claimant has merely a possessory interest in the
location, the United States has PARAMOUNT TITLE in the land..."
(Emphasis added)
*this statement could apply to so-called Property owners!
NOW
THE QUESTION IS! "By what authority does the U.S. Government and
your State Government hold land in paramount title (untaxable,
unalienable, and unseizable) and yet denies the very people of this
country the RIGHT to hold their land in same status ... in Allodium?"
Is
this not a government of the people, by the people, and for the
people? Who's fooling who? Who's controlling who? Those are questions
you need to get answered. Its' been said many times, but here, it is
more than applicable - and that is:
"All had better WAKE UP! For Gods' sake, WAKE UP!!!" [89]
Consider
and understand that, your government(?) is involved in a 'belief
system scam'. That is, if they can get the people to believe in
certain things, then the Government can not only control the people,
but also get the people to pay for their own servitude!
HERE ARE SOME EXAMPLES:
1. Socialistic Income Tax
2. Socialistic Social Security
3. The Welfare System
4. Government Schools
5. State Ownership of your Vehicles
6. Zoning
Get
the people to 'believe' that 'they' own their own land and they will
pay the taxes on it, most of them, with a smile on their face! Get
the people to 'believe' they need to pay a property tax to support
the schools (free education) and the Government can add another link in
the chain ... in the enslavement of the people in this "Land of the
Free!".
One might ask now,
"How do the schools get funding"? Well, that's simple. Since the
monetary system of this country is run by a "Private Corporation"
circulating 'Bills', 'Notes" and 'Checks' (credit) without substance
and in violation of U. S. and every State Constitutions (U. S. Art. I
Sec. I 0) (Look up your own States' Constitution Article and Section).
Since most taxing schemes are based upon fraud and theft, demand your
public servants to retum the power [90] and authority to regulate
the money system back to the U.S. Treasury, and then demand the
Treasury to turn on the printing presses. I mean it's not really
money, there's no substance, it's just paper! It's one of those 'belief
scams', you believe its money, that it has value, and your 'confidence'
thus makes it so! But it's just paper with nothing of value for
support! Since your Government can and should operate honestly, they
can just send the 'cash' directly to the schools!
Of
course, the other alternative is to shut all the schools down and tum
over the education to `private enterprise' and 'home schools'!
But
remember, the issue here is "That you don't own your land!" And
that's why you are compelled to pay property taxes ... to support
the schools. Now I realize that every point cannot be raised here,
either in support or otherwise, but you must start with the basics.
"Get
your land back, under a lawful, paramount, Allodial Title whereby
you own it free and clear, fee-simple, ABSOLUTELY, owing nothing to
nobody!" To do this, there's a price to be paid, and it is; Tum off
the boob tube, put the beer down, read the Constitution, study the
points raised herein, write some demanding, letters to your public
servants, get together in your local and MAKE it happen.
"Yes, we may not know what the future lies, but MAYBE IT'S TIME FOR EXODUS!!!" [91]
This
same point and principle applies to your automobile, you think you own
it, but the State compels you to 'Drivers License, Registration, and
Insurance, because the State holds the true title to your car, you
merely carry a 'Certificate of Title', certifying that a true title
exists. You do not have paramount title to your car, which is your
property('?)(possession 9/10 of the law). [92]
PROPERTY OWNERSHIP
When you buy property, you must know the difference between Allodium and Feudal, and the various kinds of Titles.
When
you own property, Allodial, no one can claim any control over your
property but you. When you own property Feudally, you do not really own
it, but are only renting it, and the owner has control of the use of
the property. Feudal ownership is a deception, because you have, in
actuality, contracted for a third party to own the property. Therefore.
you must abide by the provisions of the contract, and pay the third
party a rent for the use of the property. If you do not pay that
rent or tax, you will be removed from it and it will be "sold" to
someone who will pay. Property is "sold" on the courthouse steps every
day of the year, except weekends. You ask "Why on the courthouse steps
and not in the courthouse'?". This is because the property is "sold"
under color of law, and not according to the Common Law.
In
order to own the property Allodial, you must make a Bill of
Conveyance to contract with the seller of the property, get the
property surveyed, do a Title search, and file those documents with the
Recorder in the Judicial Circuit or District in which the property is
located. If you do not file for "homestead exemption or make any other
contracts with the County or State, then you cannot be assessed any tax
or be forced to obtain permits to improve upon your property. This means
that the property is yours and no one else's, and that you are the
only one in control of your property. I feel that every property
owner should have a copy of "Blacks Law Dictionary". [93]
When
you buy, make sure that the seller includes "ALL RIGHTS to the
property in the Bill of Conveyance including mineral rights.
When you buy a car, you must also know the difference. I will give you an example.
When
you buy a car from a dealer, the MANUFACTURER CERTIFICATE OF ORIGIN is
sent to the State (Department of Motor Vehicles). The Manufacturers
Certificate of Origin IS THE TITLE!!! The State records the Title on
microfilm and ISSUES a Certificate of Title, which does nothing but
certify that there is a Title. THE STATE HAS THE TITLE!!! If you read
the small print at the bottom of the certificate, you will find that
you only have "VESTED INTEREST" in the conveyance, and not ownership
of it. YOU HAVE JUST CONTRACTED FOR THE STATE TO OWN YOUR CAR!!!. When
you do this, you must comply with the provisions of that contract and
register the car every year, so the State knows where the car is,
obtain a drivers license, and purchase insurance.
You
must also obey the statutes of the Corporate State and all the
regulations that go along with them, so the Corporate State can keep
their large greedy, deep into your pockets.
You
must also know the difference between paying and discharging a debt.
When you pay a debt, you must pay with value or substance. (see
Art. 1, Sect. 8, Cl. 5 and Art. I Sect. 10, Constitution for the
United States of America). You pay a debt with Gold and/or Silver coin,
but you can only discharge a debt with "Federal Reserve Notes". Gold and
Silver coins are value, [94] if coined by Congress at the U.S. Mint.
(Art. 1, Sect. 8, Cl. 5), and only Gold and Silver coin can be used
to pay debts. (Art. 1, Sect. I 0). When you use Gold and Silver coin
to pay a debt, it is paid in full. A Federal Reserve Note cannot pay a
debt, because it is only BANK CREDIT, or a debt in itself. How can
you pay a debt with a debt? You cannot! You can only discharge the debt
with Federal Reserve Notes. The debt still exists and is not paid.
Article
1, Section 8, Cl. 17, of the Constitution for the united States of
America, establishes the District of Columbia as a DIFFERENT and
SEPARATE NATION from the Republic of the united States of America. The
Congress has the EXCLUSIVE RULE OVER THE Citizens of the District of
Columbia, it's territories, Insular possessions and Federal enclaves.
Those people have no RIGHTS, WHATSOEVER, other than what Congress
gives them. The Social Security Number is the Main Contract with this
Foreign government that creates this status of slavery.
The
way to own property in a Freehold status is to rescind ALL CONTRACTS
with the Foreign Corporate Federal Government and the Corporate
Regional State, county and municipality.
These contracts include:
1. Birth Certificate
2. All licenses (including Marriage)
3. All permits
4. Social Security numbers [95]
5. Bank accounts (except barter banks)
6. Any contract that requires a Social Security Number
7. Any incorporation, entitlement, or privilege from any
level of government.
This
you must do by Affidavit. This is your declaration that you are a
Free American, and not a United States Citizen (Citizen of the District
of Columbia). You MUST, after you type them, get them notarized and
have three of your peers witness yours, and the notaries signatures.
The only reason for the notary, is to make the document cognizant in a
foreign venue.
Send a copy of
the affidavit to the pertinent agency, along with the original True
copy and certification and service. Keep two copies for yourself, and
file the original Affidavit with a copy of the true copy certification
and service with the Recorder of the Judicial Circuit or District in
your area. You can do this in person (in the Common Law) or by
return receipt mail. One copy goes with you, in your car, and the other
remains in your files.
With every
Affidavit that you send to an agency, the number or identification
card must be surrendered. In the case of the Social Security
Administration, if you have a card, it must be surrendered and accompany
the affidavit. In the case of the Department of Motor Vehicles, the
Number Plate, Registration, Certificate of Title, and Driver's
License must be enclosed with the Affidavit, etc.. The only
exception to this would be if you do drive for hire, i.e., Taxi, Bus,
or Truck driver.
Make a copy of
your Positive Identification in the size of an ID card with your right
thumb print overlapping the bottom of the photo, laminate it, and
carry it as your photo ID.
Always
work on a contract basis and NEVER sign anything "under the
penalties of perjury," or use any Social Security number. You are
then, a Free American and NOT a U.S. Citizen.
NOTE ADDED BY DCS STAFF:
When
making up your photo ID, you MUST, absolutely MUST, place a
disclaimer on the ID such as: "Not a government issued identification."
The disclaimer must appear on both the front and rear of the identification card.
This
step is necessary due to the fact that Congress has passed a law
stating that it is Fraud for anyone to carry an non-governmental
identification card without the disclaimer.
PROPERTY OWNERSHIP
When
you "buy" property today, you do not buy the property, you buy a
lease from the County? Think about it for a minute. If the county can
tax the property, require a permit to improve it, take it away from
you if you do not pay the tax, who owns it? (see Black's Law
Dictionary, definitions, included.)
If
you PAY for it in Gold Coin, and on a Bill of Conveyance, do your
Title search, and survey, file those three documents with the clerk of
Circuit Court and the county recorders office, then you own allodial
property and the county cannot tax it, make you get any permits, take it
from you, or
even zone it, because
the county does not own it anymore. Make sure that you retain ALL rights
to the property on the Bill of Conveyance.
The
same goes for your car. Lets say that you buy a car from a dealer,
and that you discharge the price of the car with Federal Reserve
debt (FRAUDS). The Manufacturers certificate of origin (Title) goes
from the dealer to the State (regional) Department of Motor Vehicles.
When you sign all those papers at the dealership, you are
contracting for the Regional State to own your car! When you do this,
you must abide by the provisions of the contract and register it every
year, so the owner knows where it is, buy insurance (a paeans scheme)
and get a drivers license.
The drivers license was only designed to regulate "Driving for Hire" and not to regulate the right to travel.
A
license is "privilege, or permission to do what is otherwise
unlawful". The Right to travel cannot be regulated or taxed. (Art. 9 of
the Bill of Rights).
As for payment, you cannot pay a debt with a check or Federal Reserve Notes (FRAUDS).
They
only, discharge the debt and the debt still exists. To PAY a debt, you
must barter, or pay in Gold or Silver Coin, which cancels the debt.
The Federal Reserve Note is debt and you cannot pay a debt with a
debt! (see Art. 1, Sec. 8, Cl. 5 and Sec. 10, Constitution for the
United States of
America)
To
own your own car you must buy it on a Bill of Conveyance, and obtain
the manufacturers Certificate of Origin. THE DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA AND
IT'S REGIONAL STATE WANTS TO BE YOUR GOD, BUT YOU CANNOT BE A U.S.
CITIZEN (under the U.S. Code and statutes passed by Congress and the
regional State legislators) and an American (under the Constitution
and Gods Laws) at the same time. You cannot serve two masters. YOU HAVE
THE CHOICE, MAKE IT! [98]
WALLACE VS HARMSTAD
Ground-rent
Deed invalid for fraudulent Altemation in hands of Flurchaser for
Value without Notice. Effect of Altemation on the parties and those
claiming them. Ground-rents are Rents - Service. Statute of quia
emptores not in force in Pennsylvania. Titles to Land in Pennsylvania
are allodial.
1. Where a
landlord after a sale of lots reserving groundments, and delivery of
the deeds, obtained possession of them, and having fraudulently altered
the causes reserving the rents, sold them: the purchaser, though
bona fide and without notice of the fraud, cannot recover, either by
action at law or by distress.
2. A
vested estate will survive the loss of the instrument by which it is
created, for the deed may be proved by secondary evidence or presumed
from prescription; but if destroyed by the fraudulent act of the party
claiming under it, it cannot be then proved or supplied by any
presumption in his behalf.
3.
Ground-rents are rents-service of which distress is a necessary
incident: but a grantor who has not reserved his rent by a valid deed
cannot enforce it, because the statute of which would have
convert*ed the rentservice into a rent-charge, is not in force here, and
it cannot exist independently of the deed, because Pennsylvania titles
are allodial and not feudal. [99]
ERROR to the District of Philadelphia.
This
was an action of replevin, by Edwin Harmstad against Mrs. Alice
Wallace, who avowed for rent in arrear as reserved in one of the
four ground-rent deeds, the validity of which was passed upon by this
court in the cases of Arrison v Harmstad, 2 Barr 191, and Wallace v
Harmstad, 3 Harris 462.
The
material facts connected with these cases will be found in the
reports of these cases, and are in substance as follows:
In
the fall of 1838 Matthew Arrison agreed to sell to four brothers
Harmstad, four adjoining lots of ground, reserving out of each lot a
yearly rent of $60, payable half-yearly on January 1st and July 1st,
in every year; the first half-yearly payment was to fall due on the 1st
of July 1839. Under the deeds executed in accordance with this
agreement, each of the Harmstads entered upon his lot and built a
house thereon. The deeds were executed in duplicate, each deed was
signed by both parties; a part of the bargain was that the grantees
might extinguish their ground-rents at par whenever they pleased. When
the deeds came to be executed, one of the four brothers discovered an
'open space, or unfilled blank, in all eight of the deeds; and in
answer to his inquiry, was told by the alderman, that it meant that
there was to be no limit of time within which the rents should be
extinguished. This being in accordance with their understanding, the
deeds were executed and delivered - the Harmstads took away their four
deeds, while Arrison took away the four counterparts. [100]
Some
time afterwards an agent of Arrison procured from the Harmstads
their four deeds, for the alleged purpose of getting them recorded,
and while they were with Arrison, or another party beneficially
interested in the ground-rents, the same, together with the four
counterparts, were, either by Arrison or by some one under him,
altered, by the filling up of the blank in each of them with the words
"within ten years front the date there of." In the mean time the first
half-year's ground-rent falling due July 1st 1839, was paid by the
Harmstads without any knowledge of the alteration. When they paid it
they asked for their deeds, and found they have not been recorded.
Another agent of the grantor, or of his cestui que use, then
carried the deeds to the recorder's office, left them there, and gave
the Harmstads the recorder's receipts therefor; and it was not until
some weeks afterwards, when the deeds came back, that they discovered
the alteration. Since that time they refused to pay any more
ground-rent.
The case of Arrison v
Harmstad, 2 Barr 191, and Wallace v Harmstad, 3 Harris 462, having
settled that an action of debt on such ground-rent deed, or on the
original contract prior to the deed, but supposed to be executed by
possession, or for use and occupation, or of covenant on the
ground-rent deed, will not lie--that all the covenants in the deed are
gone, and that the estate in the land is vested in the grantee,
freed and discharged therefrom--that the spoliator may lose, but could
not gain from his wrongful act, and that any innocent purchaser of the
rent is in no better condition, having bought from the spoliator
nothing at all, and that there is no similitude between these cases
and the case of negotiable paper in third hands, the owner of this
deed, Mrs. Wallace, resorted to a distress for rent, on which
distress this action of replevin was founded, as above
stated. [101]
Under
the ruling of the court below there was a verdict and judgement for
plaintiff; whereupon the defendant sued out this writ, assigning the
judgement of the court below for error.
E.S. Miller, for plaintiff in error.
J.A. Phillips, for defendant in error.
The
opinion of the court was delivered, May 6th 1863, by Woodward, J.- It
is not to be doubted that the cases of Arrison v Harmstad, 2 Barr
191, and Wallace v Harmstad, 3 Barr 462, do decide that by reason of the
fraudulent alteration of the deeds, reserving the ground-rent in
question, neither an action of debt or covenant would lie on any one of
the deeds for recovery of the rent, nor is it recoverable in an action
on the verbal contract under which possession was obtained, nor in any
action for use and occupation of the premises. Setting aside all the
obiter dieta of those cases, they clearly established these several
conclusions, grounding them all on the policy of the law which
altogether forbids parties from tampering with written instruments or
deeds, and which, in its application to the deed in question here,
avoids the covenant reserving rent in favor of the fraudulent grantor,
but preserves the fee simple to the innocent grantee, discharged from
the covenants in the deed. When it was said in the argument of the
first of the above cases that equity would reform the instrument in
favor of a purchaser, Chief Justice Gibson replied, "Show a case; the
deed is dead, and equity cannot put life into it."
The
stern ruling in those cases was applied without hesitation to a
bonafide purchaser of the ground-rent without notice of the fraud, so
that, as far [102] as concerns Arrison, and all persons claiming
under him, the part of the deed which was intended to enure to his
benefit, may indeed be said to be dead. It was not merely a voidable
instrument, it was void. It was called a forgery, and treated as such,
and neither law nor equity would tolerate it even in the hands of an
innocent purchaser.
The question
presented now is whether a ground-rent so emphatically condemned, and
denied all remedy, both at law and equity, can be enforced by
distress. Mrs. Wallace having executed a distress, was sued in this
action of replevin, when she avowed for rent in arrear, as reserved by
one of the four deeds which were the subjects of animadversion in
the above cited cases. Her learned counsel does not impugn those
cases, but he seeks to parry the authority of them by a
distinction so nice as to be highly creditable to his acumen, even if
it be not well founded in law. Let me try to state it distinctly.
He
says that a ground-rent reserved in a deed by a grantor is an estate
which vests in him the instant the fee simple in the land vests in
the grantee that estate is a rent-service; that it continues to
exist, though the instrument reserving it be destroyed- and that a
right of distress is one of the necessary legal incidents of the
estate. Then he argues that the plaintiffs distress was not by virtue
of the deed, but was founded on the intrinsic and essential qualities
of the estate in the grantor, and that the reference to the deed in the
avowry was only for the purpose of defining the estate and the amount of
the rent. [103]
I think the
defect of the argument will be found to consist in the third
proposition. Not that it is untrue as a general position that a
vested estate will survive the instrument of its creation, but that the
position is too broadly stated when it is made to include an
incorporeal hereditament which lies in grant, and can only exist by
virtue of a deed, devise, or record, or by prescription, which is
rather to be considered as an evidence of a former acquisition, than as
an acquisition de nora: 2 Black 266.
That
ground-rent is a rent-service was demonstrated in Ingersoll v
Sergeant, 1 Wh. 337, a case which has been so often recognized and
followed as to have become a rule of property. Rent-service was the only
kind of rent originally known to the common law; a right of distress
was inseparably incident to it so long as it was payable to the lord
who was entitled to the fealty; and it was called a rent-service
because it was given as a compensation for the military or other
services for which the land was originally liable. When a rent was
granted out of lands by deed, the grantee had no power to distrain
for it, because there was no fealty annexed to such grant. To remedy
this inconvenience an express power of distress was inserted in
grants of this kind, and it was thence called a rent charge, because
the lands were charged with a distress. Rent-seek, or barren rent, is
in effect nothing more than a rent for the recovery of which no power
of distress is given, either by rules of the common law or the
argument of the parties: 1 Co. Lit. (Thomas' ed.) star p.443, in note,
and 2 Black. (Sharswood's) 42, and note. Blackstone ranks all of
these rents as incorporeal hereditament, and Coke, commenting on
Littleton's distinction between feoffment and grants, says, here is
implied a division of fees into corporeal, as lands and tenements
which lie in livery, comprehended in this word feoffment, and may pass
by livery with [104] or without deed, and incorporeal, which lie in
grant, and cannot pass by livery but by deed, as advowson, commons,
etc: 2 Coke Lit. (Thomas' ed), star page 333. Rent belongs to this
category, and is implied by Lord Coke's "etc.," and is indeed the most
perfect illustration of an incorporeal hereditament, for it issues
directly out of the thing corporate, without being any part of it.
But
suppose the deed by which an incorporeal hereditament was granted be
lost or destroyed, must the grantee lose his estate? Lord Chief Justice
Eyre answers this question in Bolton v The Bishop of Carlisle, 2 H.
Black. 263, where he says, "In pleading a grant the allegation is that
the party at such time did grant, but if by accident the deed be lost,
there are authorities enough to show-that other proof may be admitted;
the question in that case is whether the parties did grant? To prove
this, the best evidence must be produced, which is the deed, but if
that be destroyed, other evidence may be received to show that the thing
was once granted. " So in Reed v Brookman, 3T. R. 151, where a lost
release of an annuity was pleaded without profert, the King's Bench
sustained the plea and overruled the demurrer to it.
These
cases, and others cited in the argument to the same effect, assert
nothing more than a rule of evidence in very familiar practice with us,
that secondary evidence will be received where the party shows it is
out of his power, without any fault of his, to produce the primary, but
they establish no exception to the general rule that incorporeal
estates must be evidence by a grant. If the best evidence of the grant
cannot be had, the next best will be received; but the result of the
evidence must be to establish the grant. Even when an easement is to
be suswned by [105] prescription, or a right of way by necessity, a
grant is presumed from long enjoyment, of the easement, or from the
necessity for the right of way, and thus again the result of the
evidence is to establish the grant. So true is the maxim that
incorporeal hereditament lie only in grant.
But
what is to be said to a party who is unable to produce the original
grant because he has himself fraudulently altered it? Shall he or
his alienee be permitted to go into secondary evidence? When the law
has refused him all its forms of action on such a mutilated
instrument, will it allow him to take redress into his own hands and
levy a distress for himself? This would be to reverse the maxim, in
idium spoliatofis, omniapraesumuntur. In accordance with the maxim, we
ought rather to presume that he never had a grant, and therefore no
estate which carried with it the incidental fight of distress.
It
is apparent that this view of the case places the plaintiff in error
upon the Arisen deed just as much as she stood upon it in her former
action of covenant, and it has been suggested, not in forgetfulness that
it is not the position chosen for her by her consul, but by way of
showing that his main proposition was too broadly stated for the
case in hand, and that, holding only an incorporeal hereditament, he
cannot get her case away from the deed. It seems to me that her fight
of distress must be judged by the deed, and that the deed is no more
available for this purpose than it was for the actions of debt and
covenant.
But now let the case be
looked at from another stand-point. By the common law, before the
statute of quia emptores (18 Edw. l,c. 1,A.D. 1290), according to the
text of Littleton, "if a man [106] made a feoffment in fee simple, by
deed or without deed, yielding to him and his heirs a certain rent,
this was a rentservice, and for this he might distrain of common
right; and if there were no reservation of any rent, nor of any service,
yet the feoffee held of the feoffor by the same service as the feoffor
did hold over of his lord next paramount." Upon which latter clause
beginning with the words "and if there were no reservation," Lord
Cokes's comment is, "This is evident, and agreeth with our books that in
this case the law created the tenure," and on the words "by deed or
without deed," he observes, "for all rent-services may be reserved
without deed; and at the common law, if a man made a feoffment in fee
by parol, he might upon that reoffment reserve a rent to him and
his heirs - because it was a rent-service, and a tenure thereby
created:" 1 Thomas' Co. Litt. star p.444
Rent-service,
then, was an essential element of the feudal tenure. It did not
depend on contract, it resulted necessarily out of the grant of the
feud. The services which the vassal was bound to preform were
indeed declared by the lord at the time of the investiture in the
presence of the other vassals: 1 Craise's Digest 9, and were assented
to of course by the vassal: but as these were to a great extent
uncertain, they could not be specified, and were only declared in a
general way, as to attend on the lord in war, and on his courts in
times of peace; to defend his person, and aid him to pay his debts,
etc.; terms not agreed upon as between contracting parties, but terms
dictated by a superior to an inferior. And by the old feudal law,
the nonperformance of these services was not redressed by distress,
but by forfeiture of the feud. Baron Gilbert, in his excellent little
work on the "Law of Replevins, " tells us that the distress came from
the civil law into the common law, and that there appear no footsteps
of it in the feudw authors. He [107] admits, however, that it is
immemorial in the common law " and was at first as burdensome and
grievous to tenants as the feudal forfeiture for to the tenant there
was no difference between the lord's seizing the land itself, or
stripping him of the whole produce and fruits of it at his pleasure.
But these oppression ended with the wars of the Barons, and towards
the end of the reign of Henry III, particular laws were made to
regulate the manner of distressing, and not to suffer the lords to
extend this remedy beyond the mischief it was first introduced for,
which was no more than to empower the lord, by seizing the chattels, to
oblige the tenant to preform the feudal services: Gilbert's Law of
Replevins, pp. 4-6. Fealty to him from whom the lands were holden was
the great characteristic of feudal tenures; the services of fealty
were enforced by distress, and hence, although a feud were granted
absolutely, in fee simple, by livery of seisin only, and without a word
of reservation expressed, the lord had his right of distress for the
rent, which came to be the substitute of the feudal services. That
right depended not on contract, or the terms of the reoffment, but
was a condition of the tenure. It is very clear that it would have been
no answer to a distress to tell the lord that he had lost, or by his
wrongful act avoided, the deed which expressed the reservation of his
rent-service. The reply could have been that the rent-service depended
on no formal reservation, but that it resulted by inherent necessity
out of the tenure, and that distress was its inseparable incident. This
is the ground on which the present case is attempted to be supported.
Let us proceed carefully in tracing the principles of the law that
must determine whether it can be placed on this ground.
The
statute of quia emptores destroyed subinfeudation in England. Saith
Littleton (speaking of the effect of the statute), "where a man upon a
gift in tail, or a lease for life, will reserve to [108] himself a
rent-service, it behoveth that the reversion of the lands and tenements
be in the donor or lessor, for if a man will make a reoffment in fee,
or will give lands in tail, the remainder over in fee simple,
without deed reserving to him a certain rent, this reversion is void;
for that no reversion remains in the donor, and such tenant holds his
lands immediately of the lord of whom his donor held:" I Thomas, Coke
Litt- star p. 444. Such was the effect of the statute.
I
find the best explication of this subject in Comment on Landlord and
Tenant, p.97, to the effect following: "The statute quia emptores
having abolished all intermediate tenures, and the reversion of every
fee being by the feoffment divested out of the feoffor, and
transferred to the original lord of the fee; the fealty and rent, as
incident thereto, were likewise transferred. The fealty was
inseparably incident to the reversion, and therefore never could be
lost to the ultimate lord. But the rent, though generally incident to
the reversion, might, at the will of the feoffor, be so separated
from it, and reserved to the feoffor himself, provided such
reservation were by deed. But the fealty being now severed from the
rent, the remedy by distress, which was only given in respect of the
fealty, became lost to the feoffor; and therefore such rent stood
precisely in the same situation as other rents before the statute;
and could only be distrained for by being charged upon the land by a
special clause in the deed of reservation. When, therefore, a man
aliens all his estate, and leaves no reservation in him, as if tenant
in fee make a reoffment, or tenant for life alien his life estate, no
rent can be reserved, except it be by a deed. On the other hand, a
lease for years not being alienation of the freehold, but a mere
contract for a temporary enjoyment of the land, a rent might well be
reserved by parol upon such a contract." [109]
The
effect of the statute, to state it more briefly, was to take the
rent-service out of the tenure, upon subinfeudation, and to convert it
into a rent-charge, which must have a contract to support it. Now it is
apparent that any right of distress which Arrison or his alienee, Mrs.
Wallace, possessed, would in England be referred to the deed, because
the reversion was gone from them, and all the essential qualities of
the tenure went with the reversion. But the statute of quia emptores
was never in force in Pennsylvania, Ingersoll v Sergeant, 1 Wh. 337,
and therefore this rent-service is not converted into a rent-charge.
Can it exist then independently of the deed? It certainly can, in the
absence of the statute quia emptares, if our titles be feudal: it as
certainly cannot, if our titles be allodial.
I
see no way of solving this question, except by determining whether our
Pennsylvania titles are allodial or feudal. It seems strange that so
fundamental a question as this should be in doubt at this day, but it
has never had, so far as I know, a direct judicial decision. In a
valuable note by Judge Sharswood to the opening passage of
Blackstone's Chapter on Modem English Tenures (2 Sharswood's Black.
77), it is said, "that though there are some opinions that feudal
tenures fell with the Revolution, yet all agree that they existed
before, and the better opinion appears to be that they still exist,"
in support of this statement, the feudal principles that have entered
into our conveyancing are alluded to, and several cages are cited in
which the consequences and qualities of feudal tenures have been
recognized in our estates, although generally, in these very cases, it
has been assumed that our property is allodial. I venture to suggest
that much of the confusion of ideas that prevails on this subject has
come from our retaining, since the American Revolution, the feudal
nomenclature of estates and tenures, as feel, freehold, heirs,
reoffment, and the like. [110] This term "rent-service" is feudal
language, as we have seen, and yet there is nothing in the
application of such terms to determine the quality of the tenure; for
Cruise tells us, 1 Digest 7, that the circumstance of annexing a
condition of military service to a grant of lands does not imply that
they are held by a feudal tenure for the possessors of allodial
property, who were called in France liberi homines, were bound to the
performance of military service. He defines a feud as a tract of land
held by a voluntary and gratuitous donation, on condition of fidelity
and certain services, and allodial lands as those whereof the owner had
the dominium directum et verum, the complete and absolute property,
free from all services to any particular lord. And yet the accident of
services being annexed to an allodial grant, did not make it feudal,
which shows that the genuine distinction consisted in fealty, and not
in services. Fealty, says Christian, in his note to 2 Black. 46,
quoting Wright's Law of Tenures 35: "Fealty, the essential feudal bond,
is so necessary to the very notion of a feud, that it is a downright
contradiction to suppose the most improper feud to subsist without it;
but the other properties or obligations of an original feud may be
qualified or varied by the tenure or express terms of the feudal
donation."
Our question, then
narrows itself down to this: is fealty any part of our land tenures?
What Pennsylvanian ever obtained his lands by "openly and humbly
kneeling before his lord, being ungrit, uncovered, and holding up his
hands both together between those of the lord, who sat before him, and
there professing that he did become his man from that day forth,
for life and limb, and earthly honour, and then receiving a kiss from
his lord?" This was the oath of fealty which was, according to Sir
Martin Wright, the essential feudal bond so necessary to the very
notion of a feud.
I grant that the
charter to Penn was in free and common socage, to which feudal tenures
had at that time been reduced in England, and that the oath of fealty
belonged to socage tenures as much as to original feuds, and was
expressly recognized in the charter. But then came the Revolution,
which threw off the dominion of the mother country, and established
the independent sovereignty of the state and on the 27th day of
November 1779 (I Smith's Laws,480), an act was passed for vesting the
estates of the late proprietaries of Pennsylvania in the Commonwealth.
This act, after reciting in four sections the rights and duties of a
sovereign state, proceeded in sec. 5 to transfer to the Commonwealth
every estate, right, title, interest, property, claim, and demand of the
proprietaries, as fully as they hold them on the 4th day of July 1776,
and all royalties, franchises, and lordships, granted in the Charter
of King Charles the Second, were vested in the state. The manors and
lands which had been surveyed for the proprietaries were excepted, and a
pecuniary compensation to them was provided. Another Act of 9th of
April 1781, 2 Smith 532, provided for opening the land office and
granting lands to purchasers; and, says the 11th section, "all be free
and clear of all remorvations and restrictions as to mines,
royalties, quitrents, or otherwise, so that the owners thereof
respectively shall be entitled to hold the same in absolute and
unconditional property, to all intents and purposes whatsoever,
belonging to or accruing from the same, and that clear and exonerated
from any charge or encumbrance whatever, excepting the doubts of the
said owner, and excepting and reserving only the fifth part of all
gold and silver ore for the use of the Commonwealth, to be
delivered at the pit's mouth, clear of all charges. [112]
If
it should be suggested that these acts were inapplicable to the city
of Philadelphia, because it had been laid out by the proprietaries
before the opening of the land office by the state, I would refer to
Judge Gibson's observations in Bubley v Vanhom, 7 S. & R. 184, where
he says, to have suffered the Penn family to retain those rights
which they held strictly in their proprietary character, would have
been inconsistent with the complete political independence of the
state. The province was a fief hold immediately from the Crown, and the
Revolution would have operated very inefficiently towards complete
emancipation, if the feudal relation had boon suffered to remain. It
was therefore necessary to extinguish all foreign interest in the soil,
as well as foreign jurisdiction in the matter of government.
We
are then to regard the Revolution and these Acts of Assembly as
emancipating every acre of the soil of Pennsylvania from the grand
characteristic of the feudal system. Even as to the lands held by the
proprietaries themselves, they held them as other citizens held, under
the Commonwealth, and that by a title purely allodial. All our lands
are held mediately or immediately of the state, but by titles purged of
all the rubbish of the dark ages, excepting only the feudal names of
things not any longer feudal.
Escheat,
which was one of the incidents of feudal tenures, is sometimes
mentioned as making the feudal origin of our titles, and the
allegiance which we owe to the state is also often spoken of as fealty.
Escheat, with us, depends on positive statute, which makes the state
the heir of property on defect of known kindred of the decedent. Not
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